Interesting interpretation there Josh. Are you saying that when you have a belief in some future greater value of a stock in order to get exposure to the stock you’d exercise some options at an exercise price which is greater than the then current SP? Why?
To bring it to the specific situation here, can you provide an example of where a director (any company) has exercised options at a price greater than the then current market SP? Wouldn’t such a director just buy on market at the then current SP instead?
Confused by your logic here ...
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