WHO DID MOSES SEE THE BACK OF WHEN HE WAS GIVEN THE COMMANDMENTS ?
Certainly NOT Jesus because -> Deu 18:18I will (Not yet) raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
John 14:9 - Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father? Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
So your statement here -> Remember know one has seen God the father. -> is Not correct. God has ONLY spoken in and through Jesus in these LAST Days, and never before = there is no way God spoke through Jesus in the OT, or that Jesus was the God of the OT. The area you reference, the Bible is clear that it is in reference to Yahweh God. Heb 1:1 - God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
John 1:1 .......and God was the Word = Word God IS as in John 4:24 Spirit the God is. His word is Spirit. So Jesus was expressing out the God and Father, hence he says you have seen (heard) God. Jesus became the express image after the many years of being raised by Yahweh God. Prior Jesus (at his birth), just like the 1st Adam, man,....Jesus was in the image of God and not the express image.
Hand of God, arm of God etc are in fact referring to His word and likewise I would expect, the back of God is in reference to his word. Moses asked to see his Glory prior to the back subject coming into it,...... and glory is also the word of God, in John 17:22 Jesus makes this very clear. God himself is also Glory. -------- So the long and the short of it is, your being nothing but creative and adding something, assuming something, that's Not there and no credible grounds to Even imply what your saying.
