You can't be serious Mr whereu. "shoehorning events" When Jesus cried out on the cross:
Mat 27:46 And about the ninth hour, Jesus (The "Son" of God) cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? That is, My God, My God, why have You forsaken me?
Jesus was God forsaken (That's not what the Bible says, it was the "Son" that was forsaken) so that we (believers) need never be God forsaken again.
Jesus was quoting from Psalm 22. Several prophecies were fulfilled by Jesus on the cross here. Shoehorning His own crucifixion?
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As for the Deity of Jesus most of Christendom see Him as a dichotomy. Very man and very God. In Luke Chapter 5 He forgives the sins of a paralytic. Then heals him. Pharisees and teachers of the Law knew immediately what this meant. Jesus was demonstrating He had the authority to forgive sins. Only God can forgive sins.
Jesus also receives worship from people without correcting them. Only God is worshipped by Jews.
It appears, your missing many key passages in the Bible which answers these points;
John 3:35 The Father loveth the Son, and hath given "all things" into his hands.
Matt 28:18 .............. All power is "given" unto me in heaven and in earth.
1 Peter 3:22 Who is gone into heaven and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers "being made" subject to him.
So it appears He was given something he "never had" prior, authority!
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Then heals him. = How - Acts 2:22 Part thereof - It was "actually God" that did the healing by Jesus.
And "confirmed" by Jesus in John 14:10 Jesus states that it was the Father that dwells "in him" that doeth the works.
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Thomas proclaimed "my Lord and my God" in John 20:28. Jesus did not correct him. = You "have" added these words here which "are not" in the Bible, you have made an assumption/added!
So why did Thomas make such a claim and Why was there NO NEED for Jesus to correct "anything"?
John 14:10 makes this very clear - Believest thou not that I am in the Father and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth "in me", "he" doeth the works.
Now we have other passages where Jesus makes it clear, the Father is within him and he can do nothing of himself.
Just prior to John 14:10, "we know" Thomas was part of this group and would have heard the message in 14:10, so doubting Thomas hears the "claim" that Jesus has risen and unless he can see the wounds etc, he will Not believe.
He gets his wish and confirmation and then looking at Jesus thinks, Oh my gosh, ALL that you have been telling us, including the Father dwells in me at 14:10, MUST BE true, so hence looking at Jesus "his" Lord, he can say, My Lord and "my" God who is "obviously" dwelling within you.
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The plurality of the Godhead is first seen in Genesis1:26. Let Us make man in Our image: commentary: The use of the plural (Let Us . . . in Our image, according to Our likeness) is consistent with the idea that there is One God in three Persons, what we know as the Trinity. (David Guzik.)
Sorry, this Elohim/Plural God is a mystery created by "Man".
In Ex 7:1, Moses is referred to as Elohim and we know "full well" that there is but ONE Moses.
So what the Elohim/Plural represents, is the different characteristics/attributes of Moses, a great leader, chosen by God, man of truth etc etc = Plural.
So if we just take some Key basics of our ONE Almighty God and Father, He is a Spirit and that Spirit being the Holy Spirit as there is but ONE Spirit, God is Light 1 John 1:5 and God is The Word = Just within those points alone as there are many attributes to God, we can give the plural title.
in Our image, according to Our likeness = Without ADDING to the Bible, we have ZERO information to say, who God was speaking to, it could be himself as we all do (image of), it could be an angel, His own wisdom is clearly personalized in the Bible and then when we actually read the making of Man and confirmed by Jesus in the NT, it was all the Almighty God's hands on in the making of man AND "He" made man in "HIS OWN" image.
Jesus in Mark 10:6 himself tells us - God made them male and female.
So if Jesus was involved in the Gen creation events, WHY would he NOT say, "WE" made them male and female?
There are truckloads of the likes of the following verses in the OT, which sets the stage for the NT.
Isa 45:12 – I have made the earth and created man upon it: I even "my" hands, have stretched out the heavens and all their hosts have I commanded.
2 Kings 19:15 Part thereof – thou art the God, even thou alone, of all the kingdoms of the earth; thou hast made heaven and earth.
Neh 9:6 – Thou, even thou, art Lord alone; thou hast made heaven, the heaven of heavens, with all their hosts, the earth and all things that are therein, the seas and all things that are therein, and thou preservest them all; and the hosts of heaven worship thee.
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