"The direct action we see of Jesus in the Bible with homosexuality is that he partakes in the incineration of the Sodomites as an act of judgement for their actions."
I forgot to ask you in my prior post. Sodomy is so displeasing to your god. And he took his revenge.
But then the question arises, why did he not incinerate the Greeks? After all the Greeks came with the phrase "Love between two men is greater than between a man and a woman." They practiced sodomy on a wide scale and it was perfectly accepted by their society. Why pick and choose? Could it be the Greeks did not live in the land that the Jews coveted and later wrote the story to cover their blood thirstiness?
If the Greeks were spared could it be that your god accepts the Greek idea that "love between two men is greater than love between a man and a woman"?
