On the surface your query seems justifiable. However, logic would say that a company could not disclose its sales figures to another entity that is not constrained by the listing rules of the releasor or was not party to a due diligence commercial in confidentiality agreement (i.e. as part of a sale of business).
I have actually been informed by Biota management that they do not receive advance notification of the GSK sales of Relenza per quarter and they receive it as it is released to the UK market. I can only take this advice as the truth (until informed factually otherwise). Hence, why i debate your theory.
cheers
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