GG your reply suggests he sold high and later bought low. That isn't manipulation, that's trading across a day. Are you suggesting something else went on?
Two questions:
1) What if anything makes you so convinced the seller and buyer were the same?
2) How do the economics of this supposed manipulation work if as you suggest he sold in "huge size". Trying to distort with a few small or opportunistic orders I understand but selling in huge size means losses (or missed opportunities) in huge size and presumably even higher volumes of buying at the accumulation stage which will presumably push the share price up;
More than happy to hear your theories in more detail but right now they don't really make sense to me.
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