They capitalised $14m as development which is $10m less than last year. They did not armortise any of their exploration & development expenditure for the financial year so the "asset" grew by $14m.
P&E has been depreciated. Interest on the finance lease component has been expended.
P&E operating expenses would have partly been a cost of sale & partly capitalised as part of the $14m based on some time allocated methodology do doubt.
So, it gets down to my earlier post about arguing the toss about the $14m development capitalisation & the accuracy of that allocation. You all seem to be saying with your downramping of the company that much more of that expenditure relates to actual cost of production rather than developmental expenditure...
Unless you are on the face of it, how do you know?
Can you show me where you derived the "other associated costs would have been capitalised" that you are referring to??
Cheers
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