Hankimball, thermionic, thefats
Thank you for the info. I am wondering if the same rule applies (e.g contract is when you paid for the shares) if one got shares through shortfall allocations.
Could one argue in this case that there was a contract (as there was no certainty that shares would be allocated to you, as prospectus clearly states?)
Or may be I am over-complicating.
Cheers
mlc
