IF A (Institution) lent shares to B (shorter) who then sold them to C (or lots of C's) then wouldn't all the C's have voting rights???
I can't see how A or B would have any rights over shares they no longer own - but I've also heard the same share can be shorted more than once? - so who in fact "owns it"??
This shorting sh*t does my head in - buy hey, it supposedly adds liquidity right
Dont forget to Vote before 3pm, 21st Nov, page-9
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Last
$2.30 |
Change
-0.010(0.43%) |
Mkt cap ! $434.5M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| $2.33 | $2.34 | $2.30 | $1.096M | 476.0K |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 501 | $2.30 |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| $2.31 | 14000 | 1 |
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| Last trade - 16.10pm 29/07/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
| WBT (ASX) Chart |