IF A (Institution) lent shares to B (shorter) who then sold them to C (or lots of C's) then wouldn't all the C's have voting rights???
I can't see how A or B would have any rights over shares they no longer own - but I've also heard the same share can be shorted more than once? - so who in fact "owns it"??
This shorting sh*t does my head in - buy hey, it supposedly adds liquidity right
IF A (Institution) lent shares to B (shorter) who then sold them...
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Last
$1.97 |
Change
-0.040(1.99%) |
Mkt cap ! $387.0M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| $2.03 | $2.05 | $1.97 | $277.0K | 137.6K |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 3 | 1416 | $1.97 |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| $1.98 | 1593 | 6 |
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| Last trade - 12.17pm 08/10/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
| WBT (ASX) Chart |