IF A (Institution) lent shares to B (shorter) who then sold them to C (or lots of C's) then wouldn't all the C's have voting rights???
I can't see how A or B would have any rights over shares they no longer own - but I've also heard the same share can be shorted more than once? - so who in fact "owns it"??
This shorting sh*t does my head in - buy hey, it supposedly adds liquidity right
IF A (Institution) lent shares to B (shorter) who then sold them...
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