I have a law degree but am not a lawyer.
But from what I have read you have to show a genuine loss (people who just held might have no recourse, but people who bought might have a recourse).
It's really all speculative and the possible outcome of any action probably relies on a combination of law from the Corporations Act and common law. I will be waiting for a response from the lawyers before jumping to any conclusions.
While reasonable, I would not necessarily assume what Mick is saying there is correct. The issue may be the impact the nondisclosure had on the share price rather than reliance individuals had on announcements. It might be all physical acts that the law relates to in relation to shareholders and the mental sate might not be relevant. I don't know what the law actually says.
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