If you are strictly opposed to shorting shares on some moral ground or other, you should also be opposed to borrowing money to buy shares. Buying shares is essentially selling money to buy shares. Borrowing money to buy shares is essentially shorting money versus shares. As to whether one has to borrow scrip, they just keep printing money to create artificially low interest rates, so no backing exists for the money. So, by the same token, why does one need actual shares as backing when shorting?
Just my thoughts.
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