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clock Created with Sketch. 11/04/22
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Originally posted by Dermotlyons24
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Can someone give a justification for why there is no CGT payable on sale of a principal primary residence(the main home), yet there is CGT payable on practically all other assets including shares. E.g. So, if person A and person B both have some money to invest, and person A is richer and has more to invest so can buy a house and live in it but person B can't afford a house so instead has to rent and invests in shares, if they both sell years later, person B gets stung with CGT but person A pays no tax. Now, how us that a progressive tax and equitable in any way? It isn't...
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Did person B buy shares that produced an income along with a discounted capital gain?
