OK first off - I am relatively new to Opthea although I have watched them for many years. I was hoping one of the old hands could explain the reasons for the high market cap to me. My understanding - and I could be completely wrong here - is that OPT-302 has now been in two phase II trials in combination with other agents. In both trials the addition of OPT-302 did not markedly (and in the case of the recent trial not significantly) improve the outcome for patients. Why would consumers pay for an additional agent with a marginal if any benefit, and more importantly why would a third party pharmaceutical company pay good money for such an asset. I can't see too much in the pipeline behind OPT-302 so I'm wondering if the emperor has new clothes so to speak. In other words what is the basis for the very significant market capitalization. I honestly can't see why we should fund a phase III in any of these indications and any secondary endpoint yet to be disclosed are unlikely to change the value proposition.
SJ
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OK first off - I am relatively new to Opthea although I have...
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36.0¢ |
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Mkt cap ! $392.9M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
35.5¢ | 36.0¢ | 34.5¢ | $257.4K | 732.6K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
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2 | 55600 | 35.5¢ |
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Price($) | Vol. | No. |
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36.0¢ | 58525 | 1 |
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No. | Vol. | Price($) |
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1 | 5600 | 0.355 |
12 | 336732 | 0.350 |
17 | 973185 | 0.345 |
22 | 342092 | 0.340 |
8 | 433925 | 0.335 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
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0.360 | 58525 | 1 |
0.365 | 50069 | 3 |
0.370 | 169139 | 6 |
0.375 | 40511 | 4 |
0.380 | 145591 | 2 |
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