Not related but ran into the following on the http://www.urologyhealth.org site - this is supposedly the "Office Foundation of the American Urological Association"
What surprised me is the following quote:
testosterone, also known as hypogonadism or Andropause, affects roughly 39% of men over the age of 45. The prevalence of low testosterone increases with age. Researcher have found that the incidence of low testosterone increases from approximately 20% of men over 60, to 30% of men over 70 and 50% of men over 80 years of age.
http://www.urologyhealth.org/urology/index.cfm?article=132&display=2
c.40% of men over 45 - the statement has no backing and read like a marketing statement - but i would have thought such a claim would need to be substantiated. I guess it comes down to how hypogonadism is defined which gets to the heart of the FDA question here.
From an investing perspective - if 40% of men over 45 are the potential market - then ACR has vast potential and a lot more room to grow!!! The FDA's final position on how hypogonadism should be defined and prescribed to will be interesting.
Regards,
mita
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