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wotsup

27,752 Posts.

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18/06/25

11:02

Post #: 79475162
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Originally posted by The Disciple…: ↑

I’ve heard that claim before, but it’s not as solid as it’s often made out to be.
The Hebrew word in Isaiah 7:14 is “almah,” which means a young woman of marriageable age—but it implies virginity, especially in the ancient Hebrew context where a young unmarried woman was expected to be chaste. More importantly, the Greek translation in the Septuagint—done by Jewish scholars before Yeshua’s time—used the word “parthenos,” which explicitly means virgin.
So even before the New Testament existed, Jewish translators already understood Isaiah 7:14 as referring to a virgin.
Matthew 1:23 also quotes that prophecy and clarifies that the virgin birth of Yeshua fulfilled it. That’s not a mistranslation—it’s a consistent understanding held by Jewish scholars and the early believers alike.
You may not believe it happened—but calling it a “mistranslation” doesn’t hold up historically or linguistically.

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Simple fact of the matter is, as per Luke = Mary was favored by God = end of story, being a virgin or not = irrelevant.
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