But your post doesn't address your claim that the "last days" refers to the time between Jesus first and second coming, which the passages from Micah and Isaiah clearly deny.
Yes it does, and no you are putting context on these verses that does not exist
Please be considerate and avoid giving a quick, superficial response. Take the time to clearly explain where you stand and provide a thorough interpretation of the verses you reference, including their broader meaning as you understand it, as I do
The passages from Micah and Isaiah concerning the "last days" do not explicitly deny the existence of a future period of divine intervention or the full realization of God's kingdom. Instead, these scriptures describe a future age characterized by peace, justice, and the complete fulfillment of God's promises.
However, these prophecies find their ultimate fulfillment only in Christ. The full realization of this "last days" the establishment of God's eternal kingdom, the defeat of sin and evil, and the realization of divine justice can only be achieved through Jesus Christ.
While aspects of these prophecies are fulfilled in His first coming, their complete and final fulfillment awaits His second coming, when He will establish His reign in its fullness. Therefore, these passages point toward an eschatological era that is ultimately realized only in Christ.
It is important to understand that many of these prophecies are not limited to the time between Jesus' first and second coming. Instead, they often refer to an overarching future epoch—sometimes called the "eschatological" or "messianic" age, that culminates in the second coming of Christ.
Therefore, while some passages may describe events that begin to be fulfilled in the time of Jesus, they generally point toward a more comprehensive fulfillment that will occur at the end of history, during the "last days" or "final age," rather than strictly referring to the period between His first and second advent.
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