"There is no question that 3 "men" appeared, one of them being...

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    "There is no question that 3 "men" appeared, one of them being Yehowah himself and were offered food, rest and water for feet by Abraham."

    Rubbish, the VERY words of the Bible say, Yehowah appeared and ALSO 3 men came or appeared = it's as simple as that, you ARE adding what is NOT there.

    Tent etc, it doesn't matter where Yehowah was, when speaking to her, 3 men were under the tree = 4 in total on the scene, but Yehowah alone speaking re the woman.
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    "Later, Yehowah discussed with his companions whether to tell Abraham of his plans for Sodom.
    Those 2 companions then set off for Sodom and arrived in the evening. There is no break in the story and to insist that 3 different men set off for Sodom then just disappeared while 2 new angels arrived in Sodom shortly thereafter is an example that it is you that has added to the story."

    Yehowah discussed with the 3 men, so where have you all of a sudden made one of the 3 disappear, it's like abracadabra, one of you gone, go get LOL.
    NO, it says the men (3) went to Sodom, STOP adding what is NOT in the scriptures, you have NO grounds to reduce 3 men to 2, none whatsoever.

    I add zero to the story, it is YOU adding what is not there.
    We have no Idea what the 3 men got up to, after they left = end of their story, so accept it.
    2 angles appear, show up = so what, 2 angles are 2 angels, no grounds whatsoever to say they are of the 3 men, none.

    Not my translation at all, it's what the Bible says.
    Yehowah shows up, 3 men come along, Abraham address's Yehowah as Lord, 3 men leave for Sodom, we see no more of them and 2 angels hit the scene in Sodom = all very simple.
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    Interlinear chum, I only refer to it because, above the Greek or Hebrew words, is a number and that then brings up THEIR definition of THEIR word, not ours but theirs, so THAT is what should have been translated bellow THEIR words and not others creations, like we see a lot of, even in the Interlinear.
    So how the Hec has this been possible and missed for all these years?????????????????/
    Have you even seen the TRUTH of John's prologue = NOTHING like what most Bibles have created.
    No way is Jesus literally in John 1:14, he is only referenced and behind the scenes.
    No way can you prove this to be false, if you pretty much take the first and ordinary meaning of the Greek words.
    God is the speaker there, for the first 17 verses.
    NO such thing even mentioned as in -> and the word became flesh = NOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO!
    Jesus does NOT even show up in John until he meets John the Baptist.
    I think John 1:30 along with another after 1:14, have also been grossly tampered with, to say Jesus was before John the Baptist = liars.
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    Invented my own rules -> come on then, produce something and show from the Bible, where I have done such, are you up to it?
    You have clearly demonstrated, it is you that has in fact ADDED words to the Bible, on this subject Gen 18.
    You in effect, are condemning me for not following suit.
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    "If something has been said then that must stand until explicitly re-said."

    Do you want me to dig up one of your post re this Gen 18 matter, where it was YOU that effectively set this rule???????????
    But never the less, your statement above is true, we have NO grounds to add or create, if something is not there.
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    "A professional translator does not try to render a literal word for word translation which in many cases just produces illegible gobledy gook."

    The moment you start adding words for translation and messing with their Order of words, is the very moment you change the context and meanings.
    Why they just simply didn't translate word for word is beyond me.
    " illegible gobledy gook." = Absolute rubbish, I have Zero problems whatsoever, it becomes as clear as a bell.

    Mind you, Jesus does say, those of God HEAR God's word LOL.
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    "All this reinforces that Sola Scriptura is a complete nonsense and doomed to produce nothing but confusion and division.
    Of course nowhere does the Bible endorse or insist on Sola Scriptura."

    OK then smarty, answer the following, as no one else will or can.
    After Jesus, there is No question about it, that both the Father and the Son would be our teaches, all that Jesus had (his word) would be shown to us, including translation, so HOW on earth with that in mind, can you have something like 30,000 different Christian faiths = impossible if they are truly of God and Jesus.

    So, clearly Sola Scriptura needs to be upheld, as I try and insist, one way and one way only.
    Mans creations have caused the above and all caused by the CC's planted roots.

    With the above in mind also, molesting kids etc, should be impossible, should be like your doing it with the Father and Son by your side.
    Are you getting the picture???????

    And your suggesting I'm wrong?????????????????????????????????rolleyes.png
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    "A professional translator"

    Do yourself a favor, go to Bible Hub, Interlinear John ch 1, for the first 18 verses.
    Ignore the English translations, click the number above each Greek word and where possible use the first defined words, unless the next is the same, but fits better with other passages.
    Let it then do the real talking, truth, then come back to me and discuss this said "professional translator" stuff with me, I don't believe you will ever use such language again. wink.png

 
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