John 17:5 Greek Interlinear.
However, when you see the Greek word where they have placed "I HAD", go and do your searches and actually see what this Greek word means, represents.
Zero grounds to add "I" in there.
But even if you left it as I Had, in the context and theme that the Bible shows and dictates, it still does not have to mean, Jesus literally had this glory as in him being there.
Don't forget, the language in many places speaks of things and though they were already there when they are still future.
Jesus does this in John as well and it can change as you go along, at the drop of a hat, so to speak.
Now as for these other points you raise, timing, we went down this road before, I went into the Hebrew and Greek and gave you the truth and you have just ignored it.
You should know better than to just automatically follow or take for granted an English word translation in some of these areas as lets get real, many Bibles are translated with a pre-set mind whether we like it or not and so is the JW's in places and very clear as well, on some points.
Known from old = makes zero difference as does long ago as they can also be outside of creation, God's inner logos.
To suggest there is no inner logos in these passages before anything was created, IMO is not of God, The Bible.
John 1:1 is clearly outside and before creation which does not kick in until 1:3.
Verse 1 & 2 Are the inner logos, what was planed and who it was, the Key purpose of the first 2 verses and from that point on, the identity established, Word and God are referred to only as Him and He = because they are one on the same.
You as usual, ignore the clear facts, Jesus was NOT the first created.
