Tricky, are there tax implications or am I right in saying that you would not have to consider this until you sell the remaining shares? - as you have not really made a 'profit' with your buy and sell costs equal until you sell the remaining shares.
Im just trying to figure how this would differ from buyin and selling the whole parcel, rinse and repeating on the swings...?
The only real benefit I can clearly define would be if you kept your 'remaining' shares for a greater period of 12months from your final buy to gain the 50% tax cut.
Please correct me if I'm wrong.
I'll try to do the maths later when I have time but I just don't see the benefit....maybe if you could explain the positives vs. Standard accumulation on swings?
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