Could this calculation of shorted % of day volume be understated? Would it be proper to subtract the shorted volume from the day traded volume assuming the shorted shares were replaced during the day and double counted. In other words the traded day volume would not have been 7,950,589 but adjusted down to 7,142,080 and showing an adjusted short sold 7.5% instead of 6.8% short sold.
Philosophical?
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