I understand quite well how Exchange Traded Options trade but am interested to know how the underlining Over The Counter Option agreements are structured.
My point is simple.
Lets say that one day before the licencing of Relenza expires GSK sells say $1 billion of Relenza Options with a call date of say 30 days. i.e. 29 days after Relenza is free for all.
What if anything does BTA and their shareholders receive?
Also every time GSK sells an option to a potential buyer does BTA receive a commission as this transaction Could "legally be seen as a contract to supply albeit optionally".
What are peoples thoughts and dont just come on with canning PC and the Board.
I want some interesting discussion which might lead to something positive fo all.
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