Does that not simply mean he has more votes?
Take the following distribution as an example.
Galen 20%
Mr Rajen 10%
Heng Fai Chen 15%
Rajen effectively has 30%. Together the 3 hold 45% of share holdings. Does that not equate to 45% of voting power ?
NB. On a side note if the actual share distribution is indeed that high it is within Rajen's interest to keep the SP high, unless the intent is drop the price so he can increase his holdings.
Does that not simply mean he has more votes?Take the following...
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