To be fair he did say if they try to counter that is considered to void the ROFR based on the precedent set by the case he referenced. So in essence he was saying they have to take the deal as it stands or pass on their rights. Which we already know.
But I think it is valuable to know there is a precedent set that means they cannot counter without losing their ROFR. What is wrong with posting that?
Headed for the courts, page-4
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