Please excuse my ignorance but...if I have 50,000 shares bought a while ago, and a capital raising then takes place which dilutes my holding - then if, as I hope, phase 111 trials down the track are as successful as I think they might be and the share price rises very dramatically, then surely the dilution of holdings doesn't matter? ie I would hold 50,000 shares at say $20 per share rather than 50,000 shares at, eg, 31.5 cents per share (todays rate)? My holding in the former position is $1m as opposed to today's worth of $65k.
Is my logic in this flawed? Thanks
hsv2 final results, page-84
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