Jesus and the Father certainly must be ONE otherwise he must be a devil there is no in between ground here Jesus accepted worship in many places in scripture no question. =====
LizzyBee, Jesus said he and his Father are ''one'', but what did he mean? (John 10:30) I and the Father are one.” If he meant 'one person' the word ''one'' would have been in the masculine gender in the Greek language in which it was written. However it was in the neuter gender, indicating they were 'one' in purpose. Jesus prayed that all his disciples have this same 'oneness in purpose'
(John 17:20-22) “I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word, 21 so that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, so that the world may believe that you sent me. 22 I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one just as we are one.
The Greek verb la·treuʹo (Lu 1:74; 2:37; 4:8; Ac 7:7) and the noun la·treiʹa (John 16:2; Romans 9:4) convey the idea of rendering not merely an ordinary, mundane service but sacred service. The Greek word pro·sky·neʹo corresponds closely to the Hebrew term hish·ta·chawahʹ in expressing the thought of obeisance and, at times, worship. The term pro·sky·neʹo is used in connection with a slave’s doing obeisance to a king (Matt 18:26) as well as the act Satan stipulated when he offered Jesus all the kingdoms of the world and their glory. (Matt 4:8, 9)
(Matthew 18:26) So the slave fell down and did obeisance to him, saying, ‘Be patient with me, and I will pay back everything to you.’
Would Jesus have used this illustration if it was wrong to do obeisance to someone in authority?
