(This forum is like no other in terms of its degree of absurdity at times.)
Before the start of this week, the share had risen in price, from 7-year low levels in June 2016, by three-fold. And since the start of the calendar year it had risen by almost 150%.
But when it one day starts to give up some of those dramatic gains, all manner of conspiracy theories are offered up and all sorts of speculation breaks out in attempts to explain why.
Yet the one thing that is never mentioned as a reason is the very reasonable possibility that some investor(s) happened to achieve the perfectly normal and rational objective of buying low and selling high.
Surely it isn't beyond the realms of possibility that stock that was purchased at a price under half what it is today is now being sold, for purposes of recording a profit?
What - I wonder - is so totally implausible about that that explanation that it doesn't warrant consideration?
I'm calling it..., page-9
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Last
$1.49 |
Change
0.140(10.4%) |
Mkt cap ! $1.701B | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| $1.37 | $1.54 | $1.37 | $23.10M | 15.82M |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 3 | 24758 | $1.49 |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| $1.49 | 73626 | 3 |
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