I presume in all of these goings on that if any money in...

I presume in all of these goings on that if any money in "damages" or settlement is paid by any of the pursued shareholders then it is received by the company and not the directors?

Also I was a little confused where Mr Bennett commented on the legal fees charged by Bennett and Co as not being an issue because the bills were being paid by the directors and not the company? Or would that be technically correct if the director paid it and then sought reimbursement from the company?