Ok, but the context of your and others comments are not just eventual value of drug but what on sale price of a drugs at revenue mutliples, If a company like Race is sold for the drug it owns, i and prob others would assume the company would be sold for at least the saleable value of the drug. That's what i'm tripping up on in these differences between 50% premium and revenue multiple. hence question which is it?
Ok, but the context of your and others comments are not just...
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