I see a lot of posters mention a 60% dilution - how do you work...

I see a lot of posters mention a 60% dilution - how do you work this out?

Please correct me if I am wrong but the way I look at it is if you had 100 shares from a total of 1000 shares and participated in a 1 for 2 CR, you would end up with 150 shares - 150/1500 = 10%, so no dilution.


If you DON'T participate. Then I guess you have to look at it from a different perspective.

Say you had 100 shares from a total of 1000 shares, then you would have a 10% holding. Now they have a 1 for 2 CR and the Coy ends up with 1500 shares, you end up with only a 100/1500 = 6.6% share which means that your share of the Coy has been diluted by a third or 33%

Where does the 60% fit in?