Judging by your past post history and fact that your post otherwise makes no sense in context: I assume you're implying poor = bears and rich = bulls.
If someone is bullish about property but cannot actually afford to buy anything, i guess they're rich? If someone is wealthy but thinks the beginning of a recession isn't the best time to buy investment properties, i guess that makes them poor? If someone is bullish about property in Perth but bearish about Sydney (or vice versa) are they simultaneously rich and poor?
