jesus loves you, page-779

''I just supply the shovel. It's up to you how big a hole you want to dig.''

You are dreaming. Your dream is nothing more than self deception.

It doesn't matter what words are used, it is the context of the words that defines their meaning.

For example, whatever the Hebrew or Greek or Arabic words are used in context of ''The LORD is good to all: and his tender mercies are over all his works. << Psalm 145:9 >> the meaning that the sentence is meant to convey is

1) The LORD is good to all.
2) his tender mercies are over all his works.

The meaning is quite clear to any English speaker, and if the translation represents the original meaning, it means exactly what it says.

Now in stark contrast to the statement and meaning: 'The LORD is good to all: and his tender mercies are over all his works, we have a statement on the nature of God that shows that God is not 'good to all'' and ''his tender mercies' are in fact not 'all over his works:'

"“The LORD hath made all things for himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil.” Proverbs 16:4

So God is not good to those he made for the 'day of evil' and that he made these things 'for himself' - which in other verses state 'glory' ''... the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,” - Romans 9:21-23

This is clearly not being 'good to all' and his tender mercies are NOT over all his works.

the semantics and composition and meaning as defined by context between verses is clearly not compatible.

Your attempts at rationalizing the contradictions still fail.