I dont see in black and white a clause that says they will/can persue you for the unpaid 40c .
If in default they can/will possess and sell your MAFCA. and charge you in addition any expense incurred.
Does "expenses" also mean any shortfall if for example the fully paid is worth less than the 40c still owing.?
If thats not the case , there could be some value with limited risk here.
Any thoughts from the wise and experienced appreciated.
Regards
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Last
$6.31 |
Change
-0.050(0.79%) |
Mkt cap ! $1.144B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$6.28 | $6.31 | $6.21 | $1.539M | 245.5K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 1079 | $6.26 |
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Price($) | Vol. | No. |
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$6.31 | 585 | 2 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
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2 | 1079 | 6.260 |
2 | 2276 | 6.240 |
1 | 1273 | 6.230 |
1 | 1273 | 6.220 |
1 | 1000 | 6.200 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
6.310 | 585 | 2 |
6.340 | 5000 | 1 |
6.350 | 5000 | 1 |
6.360 | 4032 | 1 |
6.400 | 546 | 1 |
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