"I have previously pointed out that the rise of females in the workforce % wise is just as well corelated for the same time period - so which one MUST BE THE CAUSE? As you want to claim correlation equals causation to the ignorant?"
This is an example 0f your lack of basic logicial thinking skills.
There is no relationship between the percentage of women in the work force, yet you attempt a Houdini thinking your lateral thinking will impress.
I suggest you have tossed tourself into a pool full of well educated sharks--- and its embarrassing that only one or two can easily rip your illogical arguments to pieces.
And you reckon you can understand Carl Jung?
You've bitten off much more than you can chew there.
Given another poster put you back in your box, I won't go on.
