Isn't the ability to borrow AUD from overseas countries a result...

Isn't the ability to borrow AUD from overseas countries a result of us purchasing their products using our money? To borrow and leverage would mean the purpose of the borrower, if they then don't go ahead and FX it into some other currency, is to purchase something using those AUDs on our products, balancing the trade. The OS lender then has the obligation, if leverage was used, to secure future AUD. That's fine with me, however, as pointed out by you, and me more briefly, is that there should be tighter regulations, in this case the lending market.

Money supply at 14%, think this is what I need to learn more about. For someone to leverage into AUD, doesn't that mean that it has to be in existence and secured against. Leverage is then capped by the Australian Governments money supply rate? This does assume that exchange for physical is enforced; otherwise money can be created at a faster rate?

If money creation can be faster than a Governments supply rate at a given time, then is the money creation rate forced to drift back to the nations integrated time averaged set rate. For example, the economy has the ability to forward sell, and so create at a faster rate in times of high need. It's then rebalanced in times of low need, creation is at a lower rate than Government supply, eg during times of recessions etc?

So money supply oscillates around the Government supply rate?

Any info about this is appreciated, cheers.