The main reason I didn't answer your earlier post is because it's full of errors I didn't know where to start. I'll give you just one example. There are many more....
"The Jesus to be, was the firstborn of creation in the mind of God where your creations begin, BECAUSE all other things came after this plan Col 1:15, 16."
When Jesus is referred to as the firstborn, it doesn't mean the first created of God's creation. Many times Jesus is declared to be the firstborn of God (see Romans 8:29; Colossians 1:15, 18; Hebrews 1:6; 12:23; Revelation 1:5). These passages declare the preexistence, the sovereignty, and the redemption that Christ offers. Thus, the phrase "firstborn of all creation" proclaims Christ’s preeminence, not that He was the first creature created. Another way of looking at it is Jesus is called the firstborn, not the first-created. The word "firstborn" (Greek word "prōtotokos") signifies priority. In the culture of the Ancient Near East, the firstborn was not necessarily the oldest child. firstborn referred not to birth order but to rank. The firstborn possessed the inheritance and leadership. Bottom line: prōtotokos can mean two things: (1) first in time sequence, the first to be born; or (2) first in position, the highest ranking person. In reference to Jesus (2) applies for various reasons.
In any case, Jesus is the only Begotten Son of God (see John 3:16). If you don't believe the Father is a created creature then His only Begotten Son can't be a creature creature. Like begets like. So, whenever the words begets or begotten are used, the two objects or terms in question are of exactly the same kind. The Father is God then so is Jesus. If Jesus is the only Begotten Son of God then He is unique and there is no other Son Begotten of God. To say we are "begotten" of God can't be interpreted as the same as the case for Jesus otherwise God would be made a liar. So, how do we reconcile the apparent contradiction in 1 John 5:1? I thought you were the Greek expert here. Look at the Greek words used for begotten in both verses. They are not the same! 1 John 5:1 uses the Greek word gennao while John 1:18 uses monogenes. What's the difference? Well, if you were Greek like me, you would understand as most Greeks understand it, there's a huge difference. The distinct difference is gennao refers to making us His sons through faith in Christ's work. Two different words would never ever mean the same thing in Greek (or Hebrew for that matter). So, a different English word should have been used for gennao for emphasis but wasn't. Unfortunately, it's your Western way of thinking that blocks you from understanding these differences and how a Greek way of thinking would never even consider your understanding as true. You haven't really resolved in your own confused world your false belief that Jesus is not uncreated and not eternal.
