What does it matter if the application has to be in writing or not..she would have either needed to ask in writing or ask personally stating that she had no inside information on that date together with the number of shares to be sold . The consent had to be granted in writing... so where is it, who signed it and what date was it? It has to be in the Company file, it’s a formal document. Whoever signed it authorised the sale of $4m of her shares to be sold right then and there in one fell swoop.
I’m so sorry but it does not make any sense as if they had the Company’s best interest at heart not hers then they had the power to manage the sale of the shares in a way that was in the Company’s best interest and would not tank the sp or discredit her or the Company in the eyes of us and the media.
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