Regarding the "missing" $10 million in receivables that most have attributed to FX loss, my guess is that payment of the China contract was being held up due to performance issues and that a settlement was reached to issue a credit note for $10 million in order to coax out the cash receipt recently disclosed. That would explain the movement in receivable since balance date with the disclosure of only $10 million having been recently received. That being the case, we could expect reduction in revenue/profit in the 2009/2010 accounts. Is their any requirement to disclose a significant reversal of prior year revenue to the market?
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