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'Because the yield spread of the individual share (demonstrated...

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    I'm just trying to get an answer to a simple question
    'Because the yield spread of the individual share (demonstrated over extended period of time to behave like a bond) over benchmark bond yields exceeds historical averages by a margin approaching several standard deviations, which provides added prudential valuation buffer in the share.'

    Finally he gives the answer I've asking for!

 
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