So you issue a "name" 75M shares, and that group sells hell-for-leather on market. Some of it actually goes through above the placement price, some below. True the "name" owes a fixed amount to the issuer for those shares. However, if the market sales don't quite raise what is required by selling to mums-&-dads, then there is going to be a short-fall. BUT, remember 12/15ths of that money are to go to another overseas "name" so why bother running the cash through the issuing company's bank account. Just pay is direct leaving just 3/15ths to go to the issuing company and journal the rest.
Now as you could imagine, this short-fall can be dealt with in many ways, but at worst case it could be writen-off in the issuer's accounts MUCH later on. By then things would either be so good or so bad, it wouldn't really matter. Even that may not be necessary if it was accounted for between say the UK and U.S. participants. No imbalance would need to be reflected here at all.
Sorry all, but I was asked. I know it's boring stuff
CVI Price at posting:
6.0¢ Sentiment: None Disclosure: Not Held
