It's a mistranslation when it suites Watchtower doctrine. Otherwise known mistranslations such was replacing virgin for maiden are ignored.
Your logic is only valid if your underlining assumptions of Jesus after his death are correct which would not be the case if the translation is indeed correct. Do you think that Jesus was earth bound after his death. Scripture indicastes that he was less constrained after his death.
The addition of the words "today" would be superfluous if you are correct making your assumption of an incorrect translation unlikely.