I think the tax law with oppies is , even though you may have held them for a year, the cgt timeframe starts when you exercise them. So if you exercised them , then sold some you will not get the cgt 50% benefit of holding for 1 year. Now I could be wrong but if you hold oppies say you paid 5c and sold oppies for 10c and held them for over 1 year you only pay tax on 50% of the 5c profit. when you conert the oppeis you start the time frame again thus placing you in whole amount taxable on the transactions, unless you keep the converted shares for 1 year. Can someone who knows tax laws clarify?
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