Phone call from PIO today, page-103

As I see it, to do an apples to apples scenario analysis, you have to assume you have to sell take up the opp's and fund that takeup by selling on market when you exercise when they are in the money. If you held your original ordinary shares in the CR you have those to sell to cover the exercise price. The cost of funding that is transaction as I see it is bugger all (beer money) and could not understand what all fuss is about in terms of the exercising the option. Even allowing for funding that via a credit card overdraft rate, its still beer money isn't it

If we are talking loosing a max of circa $850 plus the opportunity cost on that $850, help me understand where is this significant foregone gain from the base $850 you saved initially from buying on market Is 850 plus some hypothetical number made by investing that elsewhere going to be significant?????

As I see it, you SHOULD NOT ASSUME YOU HAVE ACCESS TO STUMPING UP AN ADDITION AMOUNT BEYOND THE AMOUNT YOU SAVED FROM BUYING ON MARKET. THAT SAVING IS A MAX OF CIRCA $850 compared to someone who loaded up on the CR

Sure you can buy $850 worth of PIO shares on market, but at circa 6.6 cents the gain on the extra $850 invested in PIO today, is less than the gain on the oppy's if you got to exercise them at 6.6 cents

If you said I am going to invest more than $850 worth of share in PIO offmarket, then the CR buyer will so great, and if can do that, so can I, so the impact of any difference in gains is zero.

Please help me understand the hefty price to pay and what is the forgoing a significant gain