I'm confused by your calcs. I've done them on my HP and get different results. Obviously I've missed something.
In col 1, with n=100, I say the PV = 33.27. To prove this, when n=1 & not 100, PV = 4.0212. 4.0212*1.1375 = 4.57.
When adding a FV of $60, it seems the HP figures are correct and the Excel figures make no sense. Any thoughts?
This is really preamble to my main point. A more realistic scenario may be that after 6 months, PXUPA holders get $60 + 1 x distribution, which has a PV of $56.77 if discounted at 27.50% pa, and increases as the discount rate lowers.
We both understand that your scenario of nil coupon and nil redemption is hypothetical. I look forward to your response.