Thanks for the time in replying fellas but my only concern at present is that my maths is correct.
A & B are husband and wife who have separate finances. The property they are looking at is a cheap investment property.
Obviously there will be legal issues if the property is split say 60/40, but all I am trying to figure out is whether my maths is correct and fair to both parties.
Alternatively could the property could be split 50/50 if A puts down 20% of the purchase price, then B pays 60% of the mortgage and pays 50% of other outgoings and receives 50% of income.
Therefore when the property is sold, down the track, any profit after the mortgage is paid out is split 50/50
Again, I'm not sure of the fairness of that scenario and I'm struggling to get my head around it.
Any further opinions appreciated in regard to the fairness of the second scenario.
SPECIFICALLY: Are my percentages the correct way to calculate the arrangement?
