With Cipla in India and posibly other companies to make generic versions of Relenza the articles all state that as it is a pre 1995 drug there are no patent issues. Does this mean that they don't have to pay GSK anything? And does this further mean that Biota won't get royalties? Or if a drug is out of patent does it mean a pharmaceutical company can manufacture it but still needs to pay the developer or existing drug manufacturer. Help - I'm confused. Thanks, Suze
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