quick tax (cg) question, page-4

So lets just say FY 09-10 you had an overall Capital Loss of 50K.

In 10-11 you make 100K profit from shares you've held over 1 year before selling.

So your overall capital loss/gain would now be nil?

-50,000
plus
50,000 (100,000 divided by 2 cause of 50% tax rule)
equals
0


??