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You would be limited to 250 pips either way if that's where your...

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Fitz76

203 Posts.

01/10/14

16:58

Post #: 14059203
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Originally posted by find8 ↑

Let me preface my question first.
I know very little about forex - not enough to start any trading, put it that way.

I know the forex markets are very liquid and there's little chance of gapping occurring, but ..
I was still wondering what happened let's say during the Fukushima disaster or on 9/11 (2001) in the USA - when the yen moved violently by a whole yen or two and the USD moved by a whole cent or 2 in just a day.
That's the equivalent of 10,000 - 20,000 pips in a day in the USD.

So taking the trading during 9/11, as an instance ... (I'm sorry for bringing up this grim event ) ..
Let's say in the case of the USD, if a trader had a stop set at 250 pips on each of his trades - would that have guaranteed that the loss of each one of his trades would have been limited to 250 pips - even on this freakish day and in the context of the 20,000 pip move?

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You would be limited to 250 pips either way if that's where your stops lay. But at a time like that I would say the brokers would of had massive spreads to minimise thier losses as they do any time the markets volatile. IMO I am no expert
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