real estate to hot up on stock market depressd, page-12

MrSteve,

Let's retrace what I said and refer it to your email suggesting I'm totally wrong...

I said "Subprime is the result of lending to high risk borrowers when interest rates in the US were at historical lows"

You said "subprime is a mortgage given to people who are high risk of having a loan as such their home loans are at a much higher rate. it comes with a 4 year honey moon period of very low introductury rate"

I said "Subsequently as interest rates increased, these people were unable to make the repayments which led to foreclosures"

You said "then 4 years later after the home loans had been going off their 4 year honey moon period of an introductury 3 or 4 % and up to their normal rate of 13% -15% all these low income earners could not afford their repayments on their loans and hundreds and thousands of these people were forced to default on their loan"

So to me our arguments are very similar, so how can I be totally wrong?