Running discussion on SP, page-54586

I just don't understand the mechanism how capping would even occur. For someone to have enough shares to offload to affect the price this meaningfully I'd presume they'd need to be a substantial holder or at least significant enough that they'd trigger "cease to be or becoming substantial holder notices".

Beyond that, the presumption they are capping is to accumulate gradually. So they sell 5 mil to only buy 6 mil? I guess this is possible. But the capper could have have bought 200mil shares a year ago for 5c without all the effort.

I definitely believe it's possible. But I'm trying to be mindful to not blame all our woes on an unseen bogeyman. Eg. When was the last time we have seen directors buy on market?